The West Bengal government has constituted a high-level committee, chaired by former Supreme Court judge Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai, to review a draft Uniform Civil Code (UCC) for the State. The notification, issued on July 10, states that the committee was formed due to the "wide ramifications and voluminous nature" of the proposed legislation. The State government has already formulated a Draft Bill titled "The Uniform Civil Code, West Bengal, 2026," aiming to establish a legal framework for all citizens, irrespective of religion, faith, or community, concerning personal civil matters like marriage, divorce, and succession.
- West Bengal has formed a committee to review a draft Uniform Civil Code (UCC) for the state.
- The committee is headed by former Supreme Court judge Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai.
- The proposed UCC aims to create a uniform legal framework for personal civil matters for all citizens in the state, regardless of religion.
Union Home Minister Amit Shah assured the Catholic Bishops Conference of India (CBCI) that the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026, is not discriminatory against Christian NGOs. He clarified that the Bill aims to regulate foreign funding, not target any religious community, and acknowledged the church's contribution to nation-building. The Minister also advised the delegation to report all cases of aggression against the church or community to the police, and if police refuse, to the MHA. He also stated that the Manipur violence is an ethnic conflict, not communal, and urged CBCI to broker peace.
- Home Minister Amit Shah clarified that the FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026, is for regulating foreign funding, not discriminatory against Christian NGOs.
- The Minister advised the CBCI to report all incidents of aggression against the church to the police and, if necessary, to the MHA.
- He characterized the Manipur violence as an ethnic conflict and urged the CBCI to help broker peace.
Almost 24 lakh names have been deleted from the draft voter lists of Odisha, Manipur, Mizoram, Sikkim, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, as part of the third phase of the special intensive revision (SIR) of electoral rolls. This represents 6.39% of the total 3.72 crore electors before SIR. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu recorded the highest deletion rate at 30%, while Mizoram had the lowest at 5.2%. Odisha had the highest absolute number of deletions at 20.12 lakh. Voters have one month to submit claims and objections, with final rolls to be published on September 11.
- A significant number of deletions occurred in the draft electoral rolls during the third phase of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR).
- Reasons for deletions include untraceable voters, permanent shifting, death, and enrolment at multiple places.
- The deletion rates varied significantly across the states and UT, with Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu having the highest percentage.
The Union Health Ministry has amended rules to strengthen regulatory control over medicinal products with high alcohol content, aiming to prevent their misuse. The amendment removes the exemption from licensing requirements for formulations containing more than 12% v/v ethyl alcohol in quantities exceeding 30 ml, previously covered under Schedule K of the Drugs Rules, 1945. These products will now require requisite licenses under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, and will be shifted to Schedule H1 of the Drugs Rules, 1945, mandating sale against prescription and stricter record-keeping. This move addresses concerns from State governments about misuse for intoxication.
- The Union Health Ministry has amended rules to tighten regulation on medicinal products with high alcohol content.
- Formulations with over 12% v/v ethyl alcohol (exceeding 30 ml) now require licenses, removing a previous exemption.
- These products will be moved to Schedule H1, requiring prescriptions and stricter record-keeping.
The Catholic Bishops' Conference of India (CBCI) met Home Minister Amit Shah to express concerns over the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026, and its associated Rules. The CBCI specifically objected to the term "proselytisation" in the Rules, arguing it has no relevance to FCRA activities and could be misused to misinterpret charitable and humanitarian services as religious conversion. They also opposed the Bill's provision allowing a "designated authority" to take over, manage, or dispose of NGO assets created from foreign funds, especially its retrospective application and the lack of a judicial finality before such actions.
- The CBCI raised objections to specific provisions of the FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026, and its Rules.
- They opposed the inclusion of "proselytisation" in the Rules, fearing misinterpretation of charitable activities as religious conversion.
- Concerns were also raised about the Bill's provision allowing a "designated authority" to seize NGO assets without judicial finality.
A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) examining the Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill recommended replacing "removal" with "suspension" for Prime Ministers, Chief Ministers, or Ministers held in judicial custody for over 30 consecutive days. This change aims to address concerns that "removal" carried an unwarranted stigma and was not linked to a judicial finding of guilt. The panel also suggested defining "serious criminal offences" as those punishable with five years or more imprisonment, establishing fast-track courts for such cases, and creating a separate schedule of offences. Concerns were raised about the potential misuse of the mechanism against non-BJP-ruled States.
- A JPC recommended 'suspension' instead of 'removal' for high public functionaries jailed for over 30 days.
- The proposed change aims to make the measure reversible and avoid premature stigma without a judicial finding of guilt.
- The panel suggested defining "serious criminal offences" as those punishable by five years or more imprisonment.
Institutes of National Importance (INIs), including IITs and IIMs, have pushed back against the Centre's Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill, 2025, seeking exemptions from many of its provisions. The Bill aims to overhaul India's higher education regulatory framework by repealing existing bodies like UGC and AICTE and replacing them with a single apex body. INIs, along with Central universities, argue for protecting institutional autonomy, citing contradictions and centralizing provisions. While the government defends the Bill by pointing to Clause 49, which promises to protect INI autonomy, many institutes seek explicit language exempting them from the new regulatory structure, especially concerning approvals for online programmes and new colleges.
- Institutes of National Importance (INIs) like IITs and IIMs are resisting provisions of the VBSA Bill, 2025.
- The Bill proposes a structural overhaul of higher education by replacing multiple regulatory bodies with a single apex body.
- INIs are demanding explicit exemptions to safeguard their institutional autonomy in research, curriculum, and academic activities.
Close to a third of Telangana's electorate, approximately 30%, is facing closer scrutiny by Electoral Registration Officers (EROs) as part of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls. Out of 66.66 lakh enumeration forms verified, over 20 lakh electors were found either unmapped or with anomalies. Unmapped voters are those whose names or relatives' names were not found in previous rolls, while anomalies include less than nine months gap between progeny, less than 15 years age gap between progeny and parent, or different parent names. The Bharat Rashtra Samithi urged the EC to use Aadhaar-enabled verification and artificial intelligence to identify duplicate registrations while protecting genuine electors.
- About 30% of Telangana's electorate is under scrutiny during the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls.
- Over 20 lakh electors out of 66.66 lakh verified forms were found to be unmapped or have anomalies.
- Anomalies include discrepancies in age gaps between family members and non-existence in previous rolls.
The Madras High Court on Friday restrained the Election Commission (EC) from notifying byelections to five Tamil Nadu Assembly constituencies (Tiruchi East, Perundurai, Ambasamudram, Viralimalai, and Karur) until July 31. This interim order was issued in response to a PIL petition arguing that holding byelections before pending election petitions, challenging the victories of the resigned MLAs, could create an anomalous situation where constituencies might be represented by two individuals. The court granted respondents time until July 31 to file counter-affidavits, emphasizing the purity of the democratic process.
- The Madras High Court has temporarily halted byelections in five T.N. Assembly constituencies.
- The decision stems from a PIL arguing that byelections should not precede the disposal of pending election petitions.
- The court highlighted the potential for an anomalous situation if both the original election challenge and a byelection result were valid.
A Bengaluru same-sex couple has challenged the constitutional validity of Section 56(2)(x) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, in the Karnataka High Court. They argue that the provision, which exempts gifts between 'spouses' from tax, discriminates against same-sex couples because the literal interpretation of 'spouse' excludes them. This, they contend, violates Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(a), and 21 of the Constitution by taxing an 'expression of love and affection' solely based on sex, denying them benefits available to heterosexual couples. The court is examining whether 'spouse' can be judicially enlarged.
- A Bengaluru same-sex couple challenged Section 56(2)(x) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, regarding tax exemption on gifts.
- They argue that the provision's definition of 'spouse' discriminates against same-sex couples, violating constitutional rights.
- The couple contends that taxing gifts between same-sex partners is a violation of Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(a), and 21.
The test run for the second phase of the Census, named Population Enumeration (PE), which began in 16 States and Union Territories, includes an "open column" for respondents to record their castes. This pre-test, concluding on July 20, will inform the final methodology for the 2027 Census, which will be the first to enumerate caste in Independent India. While Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) have codes, other castes will be recorded as stated by residents. The "open column" methodology in the 2011 Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) resulted in over 46 lakh different caste names, which the government deemed unreliable.
- The test run for the second phase of the 2027 Census, Population Enumeration (PE), includes an "open column" for caste enumeration.
- This will be the first time caste is enumerated in Independent India, apart from SCs and STs, in a full Census.
- The pre-test, currently underway in 16 States and UTs, will help finalize the methodology for the 2027 Census.
Meghalaya Chief Minister Conrad K. Sangma, leading a delegation of Christian leaders, urged Union Home Minister Amit Shah to reconsider proposed changes to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA). The CM highlighted that Section 16A(5) of the proposed amendment, which empowers authorities to take over or dispose of assets created with foreign contributions if an organization's registration is cancelled, could disrupt religious, educational, and charitable institutions. Given that Christians comprise nearly 75% of Meghalaya's population, Sangma requested a consultative approach that considers the state's unique circumstances and the contributions of these organizations.
- Meghalaya CM Conrad K. Sangma urged the Centre to reconsider proposed changes to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA).
- The concern specifically targets Section 16A(5) of the proposed amendment.
- This section would allow authorities to take over or dispose of assets created with foreign contributions if an organization's FCRA registration is cancelled.
This article examines whether Bar Associations can collectively refuse to represent an accused, prompted by the Faizabad Bar Association's resolution in the Ayodhya Ram Temple embezzlement case. The Supreme Court has consistently ruled that such resolutions are illegal, unconstitutional, and unethical, affirming every accused's right to a fair trial and legal representation. Key judgments, like A.S. Mohammed Rafi v. State of Tamil Nadu (2010), declared such resolutions null and void. The Constitution (Article 22(1), Article 14, Article 21, Article 39A) and Bar Council of India Rules uphold the right to defense, emphasizing that special circumstances for refusal apply to individual advocates, not associations.
- The Supreme Court has consistently held that Bar Association resolutions refusing to represent an accused are illegal, unconstitutional, and against professional ethics.
- Every accused person has a fundamental right to a fair trial and legal representation, guaranteed by the Constitution.
- Article 22(1) ensures the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of choice.
This editorial argues that while the Supreme Court has consistently held voting as a statutory right, its evolving jurisprudence, which has constitutionalized various facets of the electoral process, makes this position incongruous. The Court has recognized the right to know about candidates, freedom of voting, secrecy of ballot, and the right to reject candidates as fundamental rights under Article 19(1)(a). Given that democracy is part of the Constitution's basic structure and free and fair elections are indispensable, the editorial contends that the core right to vote itself should be recognized as a fundamental right, flowing directly from Article 326.
- The Supreme Court has historically treated the right to vote as a statutory right, not a fundamental one.
- However, the Court has constitutionalized various aspects of voting, such as the right to know about candidates, freedom of choice, and secrecy of the ballot, under Article 19(1)(a).
- The editorial highlights the paradox where the right to reject candidates is constitutionally protected, but the right to choose one remains statutory.
Tamil Nadu Chief Minister C. Joseph Vijay has urged Prime Minister Narendra Modi to reconsider a proposed amendment to the National Food Security Act, 2013. The amendment seeks to convert the existing household-based entitlement of 35 kg foodgrains per month under Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) to a per capita benefit of 7 kg per person, with an overall ceiling of 35 kg per household. CM Vijay argues this change would diminish food security for nearly 70 lakh vulnerable citizens in Tamil Nadu, particularly penalizing states with smaller families and reducing foodgrains for the poorest households.
- Tamil Nadu CM C. Joseph Vijay opposes the proposed amendment to the National Food Security Act, 2013.
- The amendment would change AAY entitlement from 35 kg per household to 7 kg per person, capped at 35 kg per household.
- CM Vijay argues this would reduce food security for nearly 70 lakh vulnerable citizens in Tamil Nadu.
Congress MLA Arif Masood plans to challenge Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Mohan Yadav's decision to reconstitute the State Waqf Board with the inclusion of two non-Muslim (Hindu) members. This new 10-member board, formed under the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, is the first in the country to do so. Masood argues the matter related to various provisions of the new Act is pending before the Supreme Court, which had stayed the operation of certain contentious provisions in September last year. The BJP-led government, however, asserts it's the first state to implement the amended Waqf Act.
- Congress MLA Arif Masood will move the Supreme Court against Madhya Pradesh's reconstitution of the State Waqf Board.
- The new 10-member board includes two non-Muslim (Hindu) members, a first in the country under the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025.
- The MLA argues that the matter related to contentious provisions of the new Act is sub judice in the Supreme Court.
Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma informed the Assembly that 31,789 illegal immigrants have been deported from the State over the last 40 years, based on the August 1985 Assam Accord. This accord mandates the detection and deportation of immigrants who entered illegally after March 24, 1971. Of the 1,72,673 detected illegal migrants since 1985, 2,366 were deported between 2011 and June 30 this year. Cases against 73,750 others are pending in Foreigners' Tribunals, and 174 declared foreigners are lodged in transit camps.
- Assam has deported 31,789 illegal immigrants over the past 40 years, as stated by CM Himanta Biswa Sarma.
- The deportations are based on the August 1985 Assam Accord, which sets March 24, 1971, as the cut-off date for illegal entry.
- Out of 1,72,673 detected illegal migrants since 1985, 2,366 were deported between 2011 and June 30 this year.
Malkangiri, the southernmost Assembly constituency in Odisha, has registered the highest number of voter deletions in the draft electoral roll released by the Election Commission. Following the first phase of the special intensive revision (SIR) exercise, 27,653 names were left out of the draft roll from Malkangiri, constituting 10.96% of its total voters. A significant number of these deleted voters are settlers from Bangladesh who migrated to Odisha in the 1950s and 1980s and were settled in specially created villages.
- Malkangiri Assembly constituency in Odisha recorded the highest number of voter deletions in the draft electoral roll.
- 27,653 names were deleted from Malkangiri, representing 10.96% of its total voters.
- The deletions occurred during the first phase of the ongoing special intensive revision (SIR) exercise by the Election Commission.
The article discusses the critical issue of prolonged pre-trial incarceration, particularly under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), highlighting the Supreme Court's inconsistent rulings on bail. It questions the duration of imprisonment without trial, citing cases like Umar Khalid and Sharjeel Imam who have spent nearly six years in jail. The author argues that extended delay in trial triggers the right to personal liberty under Article 21, which statutory restrictions like UAPA cannot override. The article criticizes the judiciary's inconsistency in granting bail, emphasizing that such laws should not be weaponized to entrench process as punishment, undermining the rule of law and fundamental rights.
- Prolonged pre-trial incarceration, especially under UAPA, raises urgent questions about liberty and justice.
- The Supreme Court's inconsistent approach to granting bail, particularly regarding the duration of imprisonment without trial, is a concern.
- An extended delay in trial should trigger an accused's right to personal liberty under Article 21, overriding statutory restrictions like UAPA.
The government has notified new telecom rules, including the Telecommunications (Authorisation for Provision of Principal/Captive/Miscellaneous Telecommunication Services) Rules, 2026, under the Telecommunications Act, 2023. These rules primarily simplify the regulatory framework by replacing the old licensing system with an "authorisation regime," aiming to ease compliance for operators and ISPs and add anti-spam obligations. While many operational changes are minimal, the new Act grants the Union government greater powers, such as regulating messaging apps and seizing telecom infrastructure for national security. However, aspects like satellite internet rules and Starlink approvals remain uncertain, indicating incomplete implementation.
- The government has notified new telecom rules under the Telecommunications Act, 2023, replacing the previous licensing framework with an authorisation regime.
- The primary objective is to simplify compliance for telecom operators and ISPs and introduce anti-spam obligations.
- The new Act grants the Union government broader powers, including the ability to regulate messaging apps and seize telecom infrastructure for national security.
India's Civil Registration System (CRS) 2024 report indicates significant improvement in birth and death registration, with 99.1% of births and 99.4% of deaths registered in 2024. The report also shows an improving, though uneven, sex ratio at birth (SRB) across states, with the national average at 917 females per 1,000 males. While Kerala, Arunachal Pradesh, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands are top performers, Nagaland, Lakshadweep, and Jharkhand show the weakest figures. The increased registration coverage provides a clearer picture of the country's demographic transition, reflecting better capture of vital statistics rather than sharp rises in fertility or mortality.
- The CRS 2024 report indicates near-full coverage for birth and death registrations in India.
- The national sex ratio at birth (SRB) has improved to 917 females per 1,000 males, though progress is uneven across states.
- States like Kerala, Arunachal Pradesh, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands show high SRB, while Nagaland, Lakshadweep, and Jharkhand have the lowest.
A Kerala-based activist has filed a plea in the Supreme Court, advocating for mechanisms allowing disabled prisoners to self-identify and declare their disabilities. The submission argues that States have an obligation under Section 7 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act to protect disabled persons from violence, abuse, or exploitation in prisons. It recommends standardized, objective assessments by field experts for intellectual disabilities and that prison records identify disabled individuals for reasonable adjustments. The plea highlights the vulnerability of disabled inmates to exploitation by staff and fellow inmates, urging the government to create protective conditions from their entry into prison.
- A plea in the Supreme Court seeks mechanisms for disabled prisoners to self-identify their disabilities.
- States are obligated under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act to protect disabled persons from violence and exploitation in prisons.
- The plea recommends standardized assessments by field experts for intellectual disabilities and recording disabilities in prison records for necessary adjustments.
An analysis by The Hindu reveals that States' expenditure under the new Viksit Bharat-Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB-G RAM G) Act, 2025, could increase nearly six-fold, from ₹7,700 crore in 2024-25 to at least ₹51,000 crore in 2026-27. This significant shift in financial burden from the Centre to States is a major concern, as the new scheme changes the funding pattern from roughly 90:10 (Centre:State) under MGNREGA to a 60:40 ratio for most categories. The Centre's interim allocation of ₹95,692.31 crore for 2026-27 does not specify State contributions or how past dues will be settled, raising concerns about financial implications for states.
- States' expenditure under the new VB-G RAM G Act is projected to increase nearly six-fold by 2026-27.
- The new scheme shifts a significant financial burden from the Centre to the States, changing the funding pattern from 90:10 to 60:40 for most categories.
- The Centre's interim allocation for 2026-27 does not clarify State contributions or how past dues will be settled.
A new report, based on Rural Development Ministry surveys, reveals the erosion of India's grassroots democracy, particularly concerning gram sabhas. It notes "participation fatigue" among citizens, partly due to a lack of outcomes and systemic issues like precarious rural labour. Gram sabhas are increasingly reduced to clearinghouses for central and State schemes, dependent on grants, and their decision-making powers are bypassed, especially regarding land acquisition and mining, despite the PESA Act. The report criticizes the state's failure to institutionalize attendance as a paid component of social protection, leading to gram sabhas becoming a domain for the leisured elite.
- A report highlights the erosion of gram sabhas' decision-making powers and declining citizen participation in grassroots democracy.
- Gram sabhas are often reduced to merely approving central and state schemes, with limited autonomy in identifying local issues or generating revenue.
- The report points to "participation fatigue" stemming from a lack of tangible outcomes and systemic issues affecting rural livelihoods.